HEBREWS 1:4 --- A QUESTION FOR TRI{3}NITARIANS! THE OBVIOUS MEANING & OBVIOUS IMPLICATIONS!
What
is meant by the following phrase in Hebrews 1:4?
“...BECAME...”
or “...HAVING
BECOME...” ???
What
are the ( obvious ) doctrinal implications of this phrase?
“...τοσούτῳ
κρείττων γενόμενος
τῶν ἀγγέλων ὅσῳ διαφορώτερον παρ’
αὐτοὺς κεκληρονόμηκεν ὄνομα...”
TOSOUTO
KREITTON GENOMENOS
TON ANGELON OSO DIAPHOROTERON PAR AUTOUS KEKLERONOMEKEN ONOMA
“...So
he --- ((( BECAME )))...”
“...(((
HAVING BECOME )))...”
“...having
become...”
“...Being
made so...”
“...and
became as much superior to [...] as the name...”
“...The
Son has become...”
“...Being
made so...”
“...having
become...”
“...Being
made so...”
“...having
become...”
“...Being
made so...”
“...having
become as...”
“...having
become so...”
“...having
become so...”
“...having
become...”
“...having
become...”
Holman
Christian Standard Bible
“...So
He became...”
Complete
Jewish Bible Copyright 1998
“...So
he has become...”
Common
English Bible Copyright © 2011
“...And
the Son became so much greater than the other messengers...”
New
Century Version Copyright © 1991
“...The
Son became...”
Third
Millennium Bible Copyright 1998
“...being
made so...”
The
Net Bible
“...Thus
he became{10}...”
[FOOTNOTE
10]: Gk., “having become.” This is part of the same sentence
that extends from v. 1 through v. 4 in the Greek text.
Revised
Knox Bible
“...superior
to the angels in that measure in which the name he has inherited is
more excellent than theirs...”
Kindom
Interlinear:
“...to-so-much
better having-become of-the angels to-how-much more-differing beside
them he-has-inherited name...”
Empahtic
Diaglott:
“...by-so-much
greater having-become of-them messengers, by-so-much more-excellent
beyond them he-has-inherited a-name...”
“...(((
BECAME )))...” !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
STRONGS
1096 = Gk., ( GENOMENOS ) = verb, second aorist, middle, deponent
participle, nominative, singular, masculine
HELPS
- WORD STUDIES:
"...1096
Gk., ( gínomai ) – properly, to emerge, become,
transitioning from one point (realm, condition) to another. 1096 Gk.,
( gínomai ) fundamentally means "become" (becoming,
became) so it is not an exact equivalent to the ordinary
equative verb "to be" (is, was, will be) as with 1510 Gk.,
( eimí ) 1511 Gk., ( eínai ), 2258 Gk., ( ēn
). 1096 Gk., ( ginomai ) means "to become, and signifies
a change of condition, state or place" (Vine, Unger, White, NT,
109)..."
ZONDERVAN
NIV BIBLE COMMENTARY:
“...He
became" is again somewhat unexpected (cf. "appointed,"
v.2). The writer has made some strong statements about the excellence
of Christ's person, and so we should expect him to describe Christ as
eternally superior to the angels rather than as "becoming"
superior to them...”
KENNETH
WUEST WORD STUDIES:
“...The
word "made" is the translation of Gk., ( ginomai ),
a word the meaning of which is in contrast to that of Gk., ( poieo
) which means "to make." The latter means "to
construct or fashion something out of existing materials." The
former is the word used of the universe coming into existence. It
means "to become." The Son became better than the angels,
inferring that at one time He was lower than the angels...”
What
does it mean when it says he:
1.)
“...BECAME...”
And
what does it mean when it says he might:
2.)
“...HAVING
BECOME...”
Greater
than the Angels?
What
is the meaning?
And
what are the ( obvious doctrinal implications ) of that statement?
I
ask all sincere truth seekers and Tri{3}nitarians to -- please think
about?
NOTE:
The Tri{3}nitarian commentators above all go on in their commentaries
to assume a Tri{3}nitarian interpretation in spite of the obvious
implications of the Gk., ( ginomai ). I am in no way
trying to represent them as Non-Tri{3}nitarian in belief.
Nice work! Thank you.
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